Neurology Multiple choice Questions & Answers
Best Neurology Objective type Questions and Answers
Dear Readers, Welcome to Neurology Objective Questions and Answers have been designed specially to get you acquainted with the nature of questions you may encounter during your Job interview for the subject of Neurology Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Neurology Questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many Medical Industry.
1. A brain disorder marked by gradual deterioration of mental capacity, memory impairment, and confusion is known as?
A. Alzheimer disease
B. cerebral palsy
C. Tourette syndrome
D. myasthenia gravis
Ans:A
2. This sign/reflex is used to diagnose meningitis:
A. Hormans
B. Brudzinski
C. anterior drawer
D. startle
Ans:B
3. Demyelination is defined as?
A. loss of an axon in a neuron
B. loss of dendrites in a neuron
C. loss of protective sheath surrounding neurons
D. loss of the connective tissue between neurons
Ans:C
4. Serotonin and dopamine are?
A. neurotransmitters
B. components of CSF
C. only found in patients with neurological disorders
D. components of the myelin sheath
Ans:A
5. A sulcus is also known as a?
A. cortex
B. fissure
C. lobe
D. medulla
Ans: B
6. The cauda equina is located?
A. at the beginning of the spinal cord above the atlas
B. in the cerebellum
C. between vertebrae
D. at the end of the spinal cord below the first lumbar vertebra
Ans: D
7. Which part of the brain regulates heartbeat, breathing, and other vital functions?
A. brainstem
B. gray matter
C. occipital lobe
D. white matter
Ans:A
8. A specialized cell which conducts nerve impulses is called a (an) ?
A. glial cell
B. epithelial cell
C. neuron
D. proton
Ans: C
9. The term convulsion means a (an) ?
A. injury resulting from a blow
B. tremor
C. violent involuntary muscular contractions and relaxations
D. involuntary and quick repetitious spasms of a muscle
Ans:A
10. Which of the following procedures is used to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid?
A. myelography
B. cerebral angioplasty
C. lumbar puncture
D. MRA
Ans: C
11. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
A.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG, and CSS. A nalysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
B.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG, and CSF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
C.The patient presents with a history of progressive light hemiparesis. Skull films, EKG, and CSF analysis were all normal. MRH will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
D.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, ECG, and ESF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
Ans: B
12. The term medulloblastoma refers to a (an) ?
A. soft, infiltrating malignant tumor of the roof of the fourth ventricle and cerebellum
B. star-shaped tumor
C. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
D. tumor composed of glial cells in the cerebral hemisphere
Ans: D
13. A chronic disease characterized by a loss of the myelin sheath, causing paresthesias, muscle weakness, and unsteady gait is called?
A. multiple sclerosis
B. cerebral palsy
C. Huntington chorea
D. narcolepsy
Ans: A
14. A type of brain surgery that uses a system of three-dimensional coordinates to locate the operative site is called?
A. densitometric
B. microsurgery
C. sterotactic
D. laparoscopic
Ans: C
15. The combining for radicul/o refers to a?
A. nerve cell
B. membrane
C. nerve root
D. sheath
Ans: C
16. The term anencephalus means a (an) ?
A. congenital absence of the brain and cranial space
B. lack of memory
C. loss of the power to recognize sensory stimuli even though sensory facilities are intact
D. loss of sensation
Ans: B
17. Diminished sensitivity to stimulation is called?
A. hypesthesia
B. anesthesia
C. bradykinesia
D. hyperesthesia
Ans: A
18. The term encephalocele refers to a (an) ?
A. rapidly growing malignant tumor
B. congenital hernia in which meninges protrude through an opening in the skull or spinal column
C. abnormal smallness of the head
D. protrusion of the brain through any opening in the skull
Ans: D
19. The fluid-filled cavities in the brain containing CSF are called?
A. plexuses
B. sulci
C. synapses
D. ventricles
Ans: D
20. The term hypesthesia refers to?
A. sensation of numbness, tingling, prickling, etc.
B. lessening of sensitivity to touch
C. decreased sensitivity to pain
D. consciousness
Ans: B
21. Failure of muscle coordination, including unsteady movements and staggering walk, due to disorders in the cerebellum is called?
A. anoxia
B. dyslexia
C. paraplegia
D. ataxia
Ans: D
22. Which of the following is the term for an abnormal accumulation of CSF fluid in the brain?
A. Huntington disease
B. hydrocephalus
C. multiple sclerosis
D. spina bifida
Ans: B
23. The inability to use or understand spoken or written language because of a brain lesion is known as?
A. anosmia
B. aphasia
C. dyslexia
D. dysphagia
Ans: B
24. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
A.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of the plantar muscles with slight atrophy. NCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
B.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of thenar muscles with slight atrophy. MCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
C.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of thenar muscles with slight atrophy. NCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
D.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of the plantar muscles with slight atrophy. MCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
Ans: C
25. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the nervous system?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Ans: B
26. The equally divided halves of the brain are known as?
A. cerebral gyri
B. cerebral sulci
C. cerebral cortex
D. cerebral hemispheres
Ans: D
27. The term anarthria refers to the?
A. inability to read
B. inability to remember
C. inability to speak
D. inability to speak remembered words properly
Ans: C
28. The term dysmetria means?
A. the inability to read despite normal vision
B. the impairment of intellectual ability
C. the inability to fix the range of movement in muscular activity
D. severe pain along the course of a nerve
Ans: C
29. Tabes dorsalis is a term that means?
A. terminal portion of the spinal cord and roots of spinal nerves below the first lubar nerve
B. proliferation of neuroglial tissue in CNS
C. disease of CNS, usually caused by syphilis
D. rare disease of nervous system; Guillain-Barre sundrome
Ans: C
30. Retrogasserian neurotomy is a (an) ?
A. interruption of a nerve fiber tract within the spinal cord for relief of pain
B. dissection of the posterior root of the trigeminal ganglion
C. excision of a nerve
D. suture of a nerve
Ans: B
31. The term meralgia paresthetica refers to?
A. sensitivity to pain
B. severe pain along the course of a nerve
C. disease marked by tingling, itching, and disturbing sensations in the thigh
D. sharp pain along a nerve
Ans: B
32. Which of the following is a column of nervous tissue extending from the medulla oblongata to the second lumbar vertebra?
A. brain stem
B. cauda equine
C. nerve root
D. spinal cord
Ans: D
33. Which of the following is the largest part of the brain?
A. pons
B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum
D. basal ganglia
Ans: B
34. The term agnosia refers to the (a) ?
A. inability to read
B. inability to fix the range of movement in muscular activity
C. severe sharp pain
D. loss of the power to recognize sensory stimuli even though sensory facilities are intact
Ans: D
35. The brainstem consists of the?
A. cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord
B. dura mater and the pia mater
C. pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata
D. thalamus and hypothalmamus
Ans: C
36. The brain and the spinal cord make up the?
A. autonomic nervous system
B. brainstem
C. cerebral cortex
D. central nervous system
Ans: D
37. Which of the following is characterized by a lack of muscular coordination caused by a loss of oxygen during pregnancy or the perinatal period?
A. encephalopathy
B. Bell palsy
C. Cerebral palsy
D. concussion
Ans: C
38. The somatic nervous system
A. is part of the central nervous system
B. regulates voluntary motor control
C. regulates involuntary motor control
D. transmits impulses to the cerebrum
Ans: B
39. The term parethesia refers to?
A. severe pain along the course of a nerve
B. the sensation of numbness, pricking, burning, crawling, or tingling
C. a disease marked by tingling, itching, and disturbing sensations
D. impairment or lessening of sensitivity to touch
Ans: B
40. Which of the following is caused by a thrombus which occludes an artery leading to or within the brain?
A. aneurysm
B. cerebrovascular accident
C. cardiovascular accident
D. ictal event
Ans: B
41. The term astrocytoma refers to a (an) ?
A. tumor composed of neuroglial cells (astrocytes)
B. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
C. soft, infiltrating malignant tumor of the roof of the fourth ventricle and cerebellum
D. rapidly growing malignant tumor composed of primitive glial cells
Ans: A
42. The germ gliosis refers to?
A. proliferation of neuroglial tissue in CNS
B. impairment of sensitivity to touch
C. inflammation of the spinal cord
D. to and fro movement of the eyeballs as seen in brain damage
Ans: A
43. Which of the following terms is associated with degeneration of nerves in the basal ganglia that leads to tremors, weakness of muscles, masklike facies, and slowness of movement?
A. meningitis
B. chorea
C. Parkinson disease
D. Tourette syndrome
Ans: C
44. The term glioblastoma multiforme refers to a (an) ?
A. rapidly growing malignant tumor composed of primitive glial cells
B. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
C. tumor composed of glial cells in the cerebral hemisphere
D. inflammation of the brain and spinal cord and their membranes
Ans: A
45. Babinski and Hoffman are tests to evaluate?
A. response to pain
B. motor coordination
C. gait
D. reflexes
Ans: D
46. A pituitary tumor that protrudes through the diaphragma sella is most likely to cause:
A. bilateral cecocentral scotomata
B. B. bilateral lower field cut
C. C. bitemporal hemianopia
D. D. binasal hemianopia
E. E. diplopia
Ans: C
47. According to cumulative data from many sources: Is the Ketogenic Diet effective in making ALL patients seizure-free?
A. Yes – All patients become seizure-free
B. No: only half will become seizure-free
C. No: a third of patients will become seizure-free
D. It is not effective at all
Ans: C
48. The Modified Atkins Diet (MAD) highly discourages fruits, breads and starches. It also has fewer carbohydrate restrictions than the low-glycemic index diet?
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
49. KetoCal is best initiated and weaned fast over the course of only a few days.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
50. One can test for ketone bodies in the blood/urine to determine level of ketosis.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
51. These are possible side effects while on the KD:
A. Death
B. Constipation
C. Kidney Stones
D. None, only medications have side effects
E. a,b, and c
Ans: E
52. Do NOT use KetoCal for patients with:
A. Nasal congestion
B. Blindness
C. Lactose intolerance
D. Hard to deal with parents
Ans: C
53. KetoCal 4:1 formulation contains ___% fat?
A. 97%
B. 90%
C. 87%
D. 82%
Ans: B
54. KetoCal 3:1 formulation contains ___% fat?
A. 97%
B. 90%
C. 87%
D. 82%
Ans: C
55. A 3:1 ratio is typically prescribed over a 4:1 ratio because of…?
A. Patient age
B. Patient’s protein needs
C. KetoCal 3:1 lacks artificial flavoring
D. All of the above
Ans: D
56. What is the carbohydrate source in KetoCal 3:1?
A. Sucrose
B. Corn Syrup solids
C. Lactose
D. Glucose
Ans: C
57. What is the protein source in KetoCal formulas?
A. Soy
B. Cow's milk
C. Amino Acids
D. Soy & Milk
Ans: B
58. Ross Carbohydrate Free (RCF) is a nutritionally complete ketogenic formula?
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
59. KetoCal formulas contain ____% MCT?
A. 30%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. None
Ans: D
60. KetoCal 4:1’s recommended dilution is 30 kcals/oz?
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
61. Which Nutricia product should NOT be incorporated into a Ketogenic Diet?
A. Super Soluble Duocal
B. Polycal
C. Protifar
D. Complete Amino Acid Mix
Ans: A
62. Both KetoCal 3:1 and 4:1 are vanilla flavored?
A. Yes
B. No, Only 4:1 is flavored
C. No, Only 3:1 is flavored
D. Both are unflavored
Ans: B
63. When preparing KetoCal, the amount of water added will change the ratio?
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
64. KetoCal 4:1 provides at least 100% of all vitamin and minerals in as little as 40% of energy requirements
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
65. Is it safe to cook with KetoCal?
A. No – heating denature the formula
B. Yes, except it cannot be frozen
C. Yes
Ans: C
66. Research has shown that the LCT (long chain triglycerides) diet is more effective than the MCT (medium chain triglycerides) in efficacy.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
67. _______ is a possible alternative dietary treatment for seizures which restricts CHOs (10-20g/day). This diet can induce ketosis, does not restrict protein, fluid or calories and does not require an admission or fast.
A. MCT diet
B. Low-glycemic index diet
C. Modified Atkins Diet (MAD.
Ans: C
68. The Modified Atkins Diet (MAD) highly discourages fruits, breads and starches. It also has fewer carbohydrate restrictions than the low-glycemic index diet
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
69. What additional supplements are necessary when consuming KetoCal®?
A. Multivitamin
B. Calcium
C. Carnitine
D. None, it is nutritionally complete for most patients
Ans: D
70. The purpose of adding modulars to KetoCal would be to change the ketogenic ratio
A. True
B. False
Ans:A
71. KetoCal is best initiated and weaned fast over the course of only a few days.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
72. Nutricia provides the following formulations of KetoCal:
A. 1:1 and 2:1 ratio
B. 2:1 and 3:1 ratio
C. 3:1 and 4:1 ratio
Ans: C
73. The Ketogenic Diet is a diet low in fat and high in carbohydrate.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
74. When deciding to use a 3:1 or 4:1 ratio KetoCal, consider:
A. the age of the patient
B. the number of seizures
C. the type of seizures
D. the dietitian caring for the patient
Ans: A
75. KetoCal formulas are indicated for…
A. Intractable epilepsy
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
C. Glucose transporter type-1 deficiency
D. All of the above
Ans: D
76. A 3:1 ratio is typically prescribed over a 4:1 ratio because of…?
A. Patient age
B. Patient’s protein needs
C. Lacks artificial flavoring
D. All of the above
Ans: D
77. What is the carbohydrate source in KetoCal 4:1?
A. Sucrose
B. Corn syrup solids
C. Lactose
D. Glucose
Ans: B
78. KetoCal 3:1 has a mild vanilla flavor and is sweetened with aspartame.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
79. What is the suggested water temperature for mixing KetoCal formulas?
A. 100° F
B. 110°F - 120°F
C. 113°F - 122°F
D. 150°F
Ans: C
80. What is the protein source in Ross Carbohydrate Free (RCF) ?
A. Soy
B. Cow’s milk
C. Amino acids
D. Soy and milk
Ans: A
81. Does KetoCal have an infant indication?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: B
82. KetoCal 4:1’s recommended dilution is 30kcals/oz
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
83. Which Nutricia product can NOT be incorporated into a Ketogenic Diet?
A. Ducoal
B. Polycal
C. Protifar
D. Complete Amino Acid Mix
Ans: A
84. What is the hang time for KetoCal formula?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 24 hours
Ans: B
85. KetoCal 4:1 provides at least 100% of all vitamin and minerals in as little as 40% of energy requirements
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
86. upper motor neurons are central. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: A
87. lower motor neurons are central. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: B
88. After observing a pts normal gait, you can conclude that which of the following are intact?
A. sensory
B. motor
C. vestibular function
D. cerebellar
E. all of the above
Ans: E
89. What are the most important CN's to test for the neurological exam, because they are most commonly affected with hemispheric disease?
A. III, IV, VI, X
B. II, V, VII
C. X, XI, XII
D. II, IV, VII
Ans: B
90. Pts with illness often have impaired orientation to:
A. person
B. place & time
C. Person, place & time
D. the future
Ans: B
91. Psychiatric problems are more linked to person than time & place. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: A
92. Which of the following is NOT a form of mental status testing?
A. telling the pt 3 words and then having them recall them later in the appt.
B. asking the pt what time it is
C. asking the pt to count backwards from 7
D. ask pt to roll head from right to left
E. checking the pts speech for dysphonia
Ans: D
93. What is dysphonia?
A. inability to articulate
B. inability to understand or properly speak
C. inability to sound or hoarseness
D. inability to say the alphabet backwards
Ans: C
94. What is dysarthria?
A. inability to articulate
B. inability to sound or hoarseness
C. inability to understand or properly speak
D. inability to say the alphabet backwards
Ans: B
95. What is dysphasia?
A. inability to articulate
B. inability to sound or hoarseness
C. inability to understand or properly speak
D. inability to say the alphabet backwards
Ans: C
96. Using the motor scale of 1-5 to determine tone and strength, 1 represents:
A. movement with gravity
B. full strength
C. feeble strength
D. this scale is not used to determine tone and strength
Ans: C
97. What is ataxia?
A. shuffling the first few steps
B. walking like scissors
C. walking like there is something between legs
D. dragging a leg or arm
Ans: C
98. What is hemiparesis?
A. shuffle for first few steps
B. walking like scissors
C. walking like there is something between legs
D. dragging leg or arm
Ans: D
99. With steppage, the individual lifts the foot higher in order to avoid tripping. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: A
100. Pt with Cerebral palsy walk like there is something in between their legs. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: B
101. You have the pt put their arms out in front of them, palms up, and close eyes. You notice on arm drifting. What is this test called?
A. Rhomberg
B. Pronator
C. McMurray
D. Osgood Schlatters
Ans: B
102. As part of the neurological exam you have pt stand straight with eyes closed to examine their sway. What is this test called?
A. Rhomberg
B. Pronator
C. McMurray
D. Osgood Schlatter
Ans: A
103. Which of the following is not an example of a deep tendon reflex?
A. biceps
B. gag
C. brachioradialis
D. achilles
Ans: B
104. Which of the following is not an example of a superficial reflex?
A. achilles
B. corneal
C. pupillary
D. Babinski
Ans: A
105. Testing a pts toe reflex to see if toes curl with the pressure of an object is called:
A. Osgood Schlatters test
B. McMurrays test
C. Babinski's test
D. Robininski's test
Ans: C