Medicine Multiple choice Questions & Answers

Posted On:February 11, 2019, Posted By: Latest Interview Questions, Views: 1530, Rating :

Best Medicine Objective type Questions and Answers

Dear Readers, Welcome to Medicine Objective Questions and Answers have been designed specially to get you acquainted with the nature of questions you may encounter during your Job interview for the subject of Medicine Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Medicine Questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many Medical Industry.

1.  Which of the following investigation is useful for Myocardial metabolism and blood flow ? 

a) CT scan

b) MRI scan        

c) Positron Emission Tomography scan

d) Chest X-ray

Ans: c

 MCQs on Medicine

2.Barr body is seen in

a) Buccal mucosa smear

b) RBC 

c) WBC 

d) Saliva 

 Ans:  a


3. Which is not a acute phase reactant

a) C-Reactive protein

b) Haptoglobulin 

c) Complement     

d) alpha feto protein



4.Which of the following disorders have been shown to be genetically transmitted by singleautosomal dominant enes?

a) Catatonic schizophrenia"

b) Phenyl ketonuria

c) Creutzfeldt - Jacob diseased

D) Huntington's disease  



5.False statement about fragile - X syndrome is '     

a) Breakage in long arm of X chromosome      

b) Common genetic disorder

c) Micro - orchidism

d) Long face



6.C3 and C4 levels are raised in

a) Autoimmune disease

b) SLE


d) All of the above



7.Which one of the following statements about Natural Killer (NK) cells is not correct?   

a)NK cells can lyse tumour cells and virus infected cells in vitro, without previous sensitization

b)NK cells are found in peripheral blood and lymphoid tissue

c)NK cells are CD 3 positive

d)NK cells lyse the target cells by antibody degendent cellular cytotoxicity



8.The chromosomal anomaly in Klinefelter syndrome is

a) 47XXY

d) 45XO

c) 47XXX

d) 47XXXX



9.Down syndrome is due to

a) Trisomy 21

b) Translocation 13-15/21

c) Translocation 22/21

d) All of the above



10.Interferons secreted by all except

a) Monocytes

b) Macrophages

c) Fibroblast       

d) Lymphocytes



11.The translocation in Burkitt's lymphoma is between chromosome

a) 8 and 14

b) 9 and 22

c) 11 and 13

d) 8 and 12



12.Non immune hydrops is not a feature of which of the following

a) Chromosomal abnormalities

b) Alpha thalassemia

c) Renal malformations in foetus

d) Foetal cardiac abnormalities



13.Carcinoembryonic antigen is seen in

a) Colorectal carcinoma

b) alcoholic cirrhosis 

c) Emphysema

d) Diabetes mellitus



14.DNA analysis can be done from all except

a) Monocyte

b) Lymphocyte

c) Fibroblast

d) Amnion cell



15.A stable heritable alteration of DNA is known as

a) Translocation       

b) Mutation

c) Syngamy

d) Gene fixation



16.Commonest blood group

a) A

b) B

c) AB





17.One of the following is not a_ chromosomal breakage syndrome?

a) Bloom's syndrome

b) Fredrichs Ataxia

c) Xeroderma pigmentosa

d) Fanconi's Anemia




18.Commonest chromosomal syndrome is: *

a) Trisomy 13

b) Trisomy 17      

c) Trisomy 21

d) Fragile X syndrome




19.Which is true of Type II hypersensitivity?

a) Antigen against tissue

b) IgE mediated

c) Antibody directed to tissue antigen

d) Immune complex mediated




20.Analysis of protein antigen is done by

a) PCR

b) Western Blot

c) Southern blot

d) Northern blot




21.Vitamin D resistant rickets is inherited as

a) autosomal dominant 

b) autosomal recessive 

c) x-linked recessive

d) x-linked dominant




22.In Philadelphia chromosome there is translocation between chromosomes

a) 11 and 22

b) 9 and 22

c) 5 and 13

d) 8 and 14




23.Hintingtons chorea is

a) Autosomal dominant

b) Autosomal recessive 

c) X linked dominant

d) X linked recessive




24.The part of RNA which does not code for protein is

a) Exon

b) Introns

c) Codon

d) Meson




25.All of the following are X-linked recessive disorder except

a) Myotonic Dystrophy "

b) Christmas disease

c) Hemophilia

d) Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy




26.The passive transfer of delayed hypersensitivity in man is mediated by

a) Interferon

b) Skin reactor factor

c) Lymphotoxin    

d) Transfer factor




27.Which of the following is true concerning Ig M?

a)It is the reaginic antibody

b)It is important in the first few days of the primary immune response

c)It peaks after Ig G has reached its peak

d)It is the smallest of the immunoglobulin molecules




28.Which HLA antigens are recognized by cells








29. Pataus syndrome due to

a) Trisomy 21            

b) Trisomy 18      

c) 18 P

d) Trisomy 13




30. Treatment of serum sickness may include all except:

a) Epinephrine          

b) Steroids           

c) Gammaglobulin  

d) Antihistamines




31.Opsonizing toxins are








32. HLA-B27 associated with all except

a) Psoriasis               

b) Behcets syndrome  

c) Reiters syndrome           

d) Ankylosing spondylitis




33.Recombinant DNA technique was first done on genome of



c) Pseudomonas

d) Proteus




34.The following disease are transmitted by autosomal recessive genes

a) Idiopathic hemochromatosis 

b)Von Reckling Hausen's disease

c) Von Willebrand disease

d) Cystic fibrosi




35.Otospongiosis is

a) autosomal dominant

b) autosomal recessive 

c) X-linked dominant

d) X-linked recessive




36.Not a X-linked Recessive disease

a) Laurence Moon Beidel syndrome

b) Nephrogenic diabetes 

c) Muscular dystrophy

d) Colour blindness




37.Which drug is immunomodulator?   

a) Levamisole

b) Methotrexate

c) Ifosfamide  

d) Procarbazine




38.Bone marrow transplantation as a treatment modality can be advisedin all of the following cases which are newly diagnosed except

a) Combined immunodeficiency

b) CML

c) Aplastic anemia

d) All





39.Interferon is not used in which of the following:

a) Hairy cell leukemia

b) Chronic myeloid leukemia

c) Chronic hepatitis B infection

d) Myelomonocytic leukemia




40.Which among the following does not secrete interleukin I alpha

a) Lymphocyte

b) Fibroblast        

c) Macrophage    

d) Neutrophils





41.Which of the following immunocompetent cells is concerned with cell mediated immunity and humoral immunity

a) Monocytes

b) Neutrophils     

c) Eosinophils      

d) Lymphocytes




42. Barrbody is seen in

a) turners syndrome      

b) Klinefelters syndrome

c) testicular feminization

d) light chain IgG




43. Bence Jones proteins are

a) heavy chain IgG     

b) present in bone marrow

c) seen in lymphoma    

d) 46 XY 




44. DNA analysis is useful for all except

a) Thalassemia

b) Hemophilia      

c) Ectodermal dysplasia     

d) Duchenne's dystrophy




45. Disease where gene therapy has been attempted or considered include:

a) Adenosine deaminase deficiency      

b) Hemophilia A

c) Cystic fibrosis

d) Hypercholesterolemia

e) All of the above




46.Passive transfer of delayed hypersensitivity in man is mediated by

a) Interferon

b) Skin reactor factor

c) Lymphotoxin    

d) Transfer factor




47. True about transmission of an x-linked recessive disease are

a)All daughters will have disease

b)All sons will be carriers

c)50% of sons & 50% of daughters will have disease

d)50% of sons of an affected mother will contract disease




48. Single gene disorder is

a) glycogen storage disease

b) retinoblastoma






49.Edwards syndrome is

a) Trisomy 21

b) Trisomy 18       

c) Trisomy 13       


e) 18Q




50.The commonest cause of primary immuno deficiency is

a) Ig A deficiency

b) Agamma globulinemia

c) Congenital immunodeficiency

d) Acquired immuno deficiency




51.Cyclosporin mainly affects

a) CD4+cells

b) CD 8 cells        

c) B-cells

d) CD 3 +cells




52) AH of the following statements regarding mast cells are true except

a) they contain heparin proteoglycan

b) their number is increased in patients with bronchial asthma

c) disodium cromoglycate brings about their degranulation

d) they have receptors for Fc portion of IE.




53. Wilms tumor is characterized by which chromosomal aberration

a) lip-

b) llq-^

c) 13p-

d) 13q-




54. Percentage of Rh positivity is

a) 80%



b) 85%




55. All are X linked diseases except

a) Myotonic dystrophy


c) Fabrys disease 

d) Hemophilia A


 Ans: a


56. Father has Autosomal dominant disease. Mother is normal with no family history of the disease. What are the    chances of son getting the disease

a) 100%







57. Dominant trait expresses in

a) homozygous state

b) heterozygous state 

c) both homo and heterozygous state 

d) males


 Ans: c


58.Most important HLA for organ transplantation and tissue typing

 a) HLA-A







59.All of the following are autosomal dominant disorders except

a) tuberous sclerosis        

b) polyposis coli

c) cystic fibrosis 

d) myotonic dystonia




60.X linked recessive disease is characterized by

a) Vertical transmission

b) 50% female carriers if male is affected

c) 50% male affected if female is diseased

d) 50% male carriers if female is diseased





61.Achondroplasia is inherited as

a) autosomal dominant

b) autosomal recessive 

c) x-linkeddonlinant

d) x-linked recessive




62.All are Autosomal recessive except

a)-Cystic fibrosis  

b) Hypercholesterolemia 

c) Wilsons disease

d) Sickle cell anemia





63. Short stature with widely spread nipples and webbing of neck is seen in

a) Down's syndrome

b) Turner's syndrome

c) klinefelter's syndrome

d) Edward's syndrome




64.Pick out product manufactured at present by genetic engineering

a) Interferons

b) Rabies vaccine

c) Gammaglobulin

d) Tuberous sclerosis




65.All of the following are autosomal recessive except

a) Albinism

b) Alkaptonuria

c) Cystic fibrosis

d) Tuberous sclerosis





66.Which one of the following immunoglobulins is^characteristically elevajtedm filariasis?








67.Which is not X-recessive?  

a) beta thalassemia                 

b) G6PD deficiency            

c) hemophilia A   

d) colour blindness




68.Commonest chromosomal anomaly

a) fragile     

b) trisomy 21        

c) trisomy 13        

d) trisomy 18




69.Interferon is not used in

a) CML       

b) Polymyositis   

c) Hairy cell leukaemia       

d) Chronic hepatitis C infection




70. Mode of action of actinomycin - D is to prevent:

a) RNA elongation    

b) DNA synthesis

c) DNA elongation

d) None of the above





71. A 15-year old girl presents with history of 7 days high fever, toxic appearance, anaemia, petechiae  over     skin, ulcers in the mouth and mild hepatosplenomegaly with total count of 30,000/cu mm.The most important           investigation for diagnosis would be:

a) Blood culture        

b) Splenic puncture

c) Liver biopsy    

d) Bone marrow aspiration




72. Chemoprophylaxis is used in all except

a) Malaria

b) Typhoid

c) Meningococcal meningitis

b) gram negative enterobacteriae 




73. Endotoxic shock is due to

a) gram positive bacteria 

b) gram negitive entrobacteriae

c) viruses

d) gas gangrene



74. The endotoxin which leads to endotoxic shocks is actually    

a) Lipoprotein

b) Lipopolysaccharide      

c) Polysaccharide

d) Polyamide




75.Probenecid excretion is increased by

a) penicillin

b) cephalosporin


d) tetracycline




76.Drug of choice for Pneumocystis carini

a) Tetracycline

b) Cotrimoxazole

c) Penicillin

d) Cifran




77. Immunoglobulin administration is life saving in one of the following conditions:

a) Rabies

b) Clostridium

c) Poliomyelitis

d) Typhoid




78. Pick out the vaccine that gives lifelong protection after the initial course of vaccination 

a) TAB vaccine


c) Measles vaccine

d)BCG vaccine




79. Tetracyclines are useful in infections of

a) Rickettsia







80.True statement regarding Ciprofloxacin is

a) Excreted mainly through bile

b) Antacid when given with, facilitates absorption

c) It can be given only orally

d) Belongs to Fluroquinolones group




81.The antibiotic which is acid labile is


b) Cloxacillin        


d) Methicillin




82.Cinchonism is due to

a) Quinine







83.Drug of choice in pseudomonas septicemia is:

a) Methicillin

b) Ceftazidime      

c) Moxalactum     

d) Piperacillin




84.  The half life of chloroquine is :

a) 6 hours

b) 7 days

c) 12 hours 

d) 24 hours





85.Which of the following combination is not synergistic

a)Penicillin and streptomycin in endocarditis

b)Amphotericin B and flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis

c)Penicillin and chlortetracycline in pneumococcal meningitis

d)Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim in UT1




86.Nosocomial pneumonia is caused most commonly by

a) streptococcal        

b) mycoplasma    

c) gram negative bacteria 

d) viruses




87. The persistence of one of the following clinical feature indicates very poor prognosis in a case of endotoxin shock:

a) Generalized weakness 

b) Low volume pulse 

c) Tachycardia

d) Oliguria

e) Restlessness




88.Treatment of travellers diarrhoea is

a) sulfaguanidine 

b) Diphenoxylate and atropine

c) metronidazole

d) Chloromycetin and Streptomycin




89. The following are characteristic of central fever except

a) No diurnal variation

b) No sweating

c) decreased response to External cooling

d) Resistant to antipyretics




90. Ampicillin is used in all except

a) Pseudomonas       

b) Proteus

c) Streptococci    

d) Staphylococci




91.First generation cephalosporins are not effective in... infection

a) Pseudomonas       

b) Proteus

c) Streptococci    

d) Staphylococci




92.Which of the following is a useful bedside test in septicemia assessment?

a) Peripheral smear    

b) Micro ESR assay

c)CRP levels      

d) Urine microscopy




93.PTJO in a farmer dealing with goats milk is usually due to

a) Anthrax

b) Brucella

c) Mycobacterium

d) Histoplasma




94.Drug choice for pseudomonas septicemia are

a) carbenicillin

b) Gentamicin      

c) tobramycin plus ticarcillin

d) Histoplasma




95.Prognosis is related to incubation period in

a) Cholera

b) Rabies

c) Tetanus

d) Diphtheria




96.The following statement about arboviruses is FALSE

a)Complications include encephalitis and Hemorrhage

b)Transmission is typically by the ingestion of infected water

c)They occur predominantly in temperate climates

d)Incubation period is usually more than one month




97.The most common cause of seizures in a patient

a) Toxoplasmosis

b)Cryptococcal meningitis

c) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyof AIDS is                               



98. HIV is a

a) Retrovirus             

b) Flavivirus        

c) Oncovirus  

d) Arbovirus



99. Bronchopneumonia due to measles occurs because of                                

a) Running nose      

b) Sinusitis          

c) Immuno modulation       

d) Bronchial obstruction



100.  The most common ophthalmic lesion in AIDS is

a) Hard exudates      

b) Cotton wool spots

c) Angioid Streaks

d) Microaneurysms