IMMUNOLOGY Multiple choice Questions & Answers

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Best IMMUNOLOGY Objective type Questions and Answers

Dear Readers, Welcome to IMMUNOLOGY Objective Questions and Answers have been designed specially to get you acquainted with the nature of questions you may encounter during your Job interview for the subject of IMMUNOLOGY Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type IMMUNOLOGY Questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many Medical Industry.

1. The most scientific method to identify which triggers may be causing my nasal allergies is to:

A. Track the time of year when my symptoms occur

B. Have an allergist perform a skin test

C. Have an allergist run a blood test

D. There is no good way to know what I'm allergic to

 Ans: B and/or C

MCQs on IMMUNOLOGY

2. Which is the most effective treatment for nasal allergies?

A. Over-the-counter antihistamines

B. Prescription antihistamines

C. Antihistamine decongestant combination pills

D. Nasal corticosteroid sprays

E. Oral leukotriene receptor antagonists

 Ans: D

 

3. Which one of the following is least likely to trigger asthma?

A. Strenuous exercise

B. A common cold

C. Reading the newspaper

D. Cat dander

E. Tobacco smoke

 Ans: C

 

4. Which of the following factors can pre-dispose you to having allergies?

A. A family history of allergies

B. Environmental Conditions

C. Number and type of Exposures

D. Emotional factors

E. All of the above

 Ans: E

 

5. Hypersensitivity of which system of your body creates an allergic response?

A. Skin

B. Immune System

C. Circulatory System

D. Pulmonary System

E. Digestive System

 Ans:C

 

6. Which of the following treatments can be used to reduce allergic reactions to unavoidable substances?

A. Milk thistle three times daily

B. Mist inhalation therapy

C. Regularly wearing a face mask

D. Desensitization (Allergy shots)

E. Regularly wearing a garlic necklace

 Ans:D

 

7. Which of the following is the most commonly prescribed treatment for hives?

A. Oral antihistamines

B. Oral corticosteroids such as prednisone

C. Epinephrine (adrenaline)

D. Aspirin

E. Immunotherapy

 Ans:A

 

8. Which of the following does NOT reduce or delay allergies in children?

A. Reducing dust-collecting items

B. Limiting exposure early in life to indoor furry pets

C. Avoiding smoking in and around the house

D. Exclusively wearing cotton clothes

E. All actions adequately reduce allergies

 Ans:D

 

9. Which of these body systems causes allergic reactions?

A. Lymph

B. Immune

C. Nervous

D. Autonomic

E. Circulatory

 Ans:B

 

10. An allergen is anything that triggers an allergic or hypersensitive response.

Which of these could be an allergen?

A. Dust

B. Food

C. Nickel jewelry

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 Ans:B

 

11. What does the body release to combat allergens?

A. Plasma

B. Epinephrine

C. Histamine

D. Red Blood cells

E. Cortisone

 Ans:C

 

12. The most severe form of allergic reaction is called anaphylaxis. What happens?

A. Blood pressure drops

B. Breathing becomes difficult

C. Runny nose develops

D. A and B

E. B and C

 Ans:D

 

13. Which of these symptoms may indicate a food allergy?

A. Skin rash

B. Runny nose

C. Diarrhea

D. Nausea

E. Wheezing

 Ans: A

 

14. Which of these foods are most likely to trigger an allergy?

A. Shellfish

B. Wheat

C. Celery

D. A and B

E. B and C

 Ans: D

 

15. More Americans are developing a sensitivity to the plant proteins in latex materials or the chemical additives used in manufacturing the materials. Who's most at risk of developing a latex allergy?

A. Patients who undergo numerous medical procedures

B. Health care workers

C. Children

D. A and B

E. B and C

 Ans: D

 

16. Pediatricians who treat children with egg allergies are cautious about using certain vaccines because they may be grown in an egg medium. Which of these vaccines warrant caution?

A. MMR

B. Flu

C. Polio

D. A and B

E. B and C

 Ans: D

 

17. Dust mites trigger indoor respiratory allergies. Where are you most likely to find them in the home?

A. Carpet

B. Beds

C. Drapes

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 Ans: B

 

18. How long ago was asthma identified as an ailment?

A. 1,000 years ago

B. 500 years ago

C. 100 years ago

D. 50 years ago

E. 100,000 years ago

 Ans: A

 

19. What are the symptoms of asthma?

A. Tightness in the chest

B. Wheezing

C. Sneezing

D. A and B

E. B and C

 Ans: D

 

20. Which of these can trigger an asthma attack?

A. Exercise

B. Aspirin

C. Laughing

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 Ans: D

 

21. Which of these allergens are most likely to induce asthma?

A. Ragweed

B. Cockroaches

C. Feathers

D. B and C

E. A and B

 Ans: D 

 

22. Which of these foods should children with asthma avoid?

A. Dairy products

B. All nuts

C. Foods with preservatives

D. None of the above

E. All of the above

 Ans: D

 

23. Which of these, if eaten on a weekly basis, can help reduce chronic coughing and wheezing in asthmatic children?

A. Broccoli

B. Oranges

C. Apples

D. Fish

E. Peanut

 Ans: B

 

24. Which sports are best for asthmatics?

A. Baseball

B. Swimming

C. Sprinting

D. All of the above

E. Sport is dangerous for asthmatics

 Ans: D

 

25. What can you do to reduce exposure to outdoor asthma triggers?

A. Exercise outdoors on high ozone days

B. Schedule camping trips in May, June or August through October

C. Pursue outdoor sports in cold weather

D. None of the above

E. All of the above

 Ans: D

 

26. Which of these alternative health treatments have reduced symptoms in children?

A. Nightly massages

B. Evening primrose herb

C. Yoga

D. Aromatherapy

E. All of the above

 Ans: A

 

27. What should you do if pet hair triggers your asthma?

A. Bathe the pet weekly

B. Keep the pet outside if possible

C. Own a dog, not a cat

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 Ans: D

 

28. People who have atopic dermatitis also may have:

A. Asthma

B. Allergies

C. Acne

D. A and B

E. B and C

 Ans: D

 

29. Which group of people is more likely to develop atopic dermatitis?

A. Infants and young children

B. Teenagers

C. Adults 20 to 49

D. Older adults

E. All of the above

 Ans: A

 

30. One characteristic of atopic dermatitis is:

A. It affects the face more than the rest of the body

B. It can leave pockmarks on the skin

C. It cycles through periods of flares and remissions

D. It is worse in autumn

E. There is no correct answer

 Ans: C

 

31. Atopic dermatitis is also often called:

A. Acne

B. Eczema

C. Psoriasis

D. Pimples

E. Hives

 Ans: B

 

32. In the past, doctors thought which of these caused atopic dermatitis?

A. Too much sun

B. An emotional disorder

C. Food allergies

D. Dust mite allergy

E. None of the above

 Ans: B

 

33. Which is a symptom of atopic dermatitis?

A. Blisters on the palms of hands and soles of feet

B. Itchy, inflamed skin

C. Scaly patches of skin on the scalp

D. Coin-shaped patches of irritated skin on the arms and lower legs

E. All answers are correct

 Ans: B

 

34. Some people with atopic dermatitis develop:

A. Thick, leathery skin

B. Red, scaling skin

C. Small raised bumps on the skin

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 Ans: D

 

35. The skin of a person with atopic dermatitis is more susceptible to:

A. Skin infections

B. Warts

C. Herpes simplex

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 Ans: D

 

36. Match the immune deficiency in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome with the appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test, oxidated burst)

D. Serum calcium

E. Platelet count and morphology

 Ans: E

 

37. Match the immune deficiency in Di George anomaly with the appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test, oxidated burst)

D. Serum calcium

E. Platelet count and morphology

 Ans: D

 

38. Match the immune deficiency in Bruton’s disease with the appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test, oxidated burst)

D. Serum calcium

E. Platelet count and morphology

 Ans: A

 

39. Match the immune deficiency in Leukocyte adhesion defect with the appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test, oxidated burst)

D. Serum calcium

E. Platelet count and morphology

 Ans: B

 

40. Match the immune deficiency in Chronic Granulomatous disease with the appropriate lab test:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. CD11 by flow cytometry

C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test, oxidated burst)

D. Serum calcium

E. Platelet count and morphology

 Ans: C

 

41. State one from airborne substances listed below is Perennial allergen:

A. Dust mites

B. Sagebrush

C. Ragweed

D. Perfume

E. Cigarette smoke

 Ans: A

 

42. State one from airborne substances listed below is Non-IgE mediated irritant:

A. Dust mites

B. Cat dander

C. Ragweed

D. Sagebrush

E. Cigarette smoke

 Ans: E

 

43. State one from airborne substances listed below is Seasonal allergen:

A. Dust mites

B. Cat dander

C. Ragweed

D. Perfume

E. Cigarette smoke

 Ans: C

 

44. In June, a 24-year-old female presents with angioedema of the face, including eyelids and lips. She has had two previous similar episodes. Her father has also had recurrent angiodema of the face and extremities. Neither has associated pruritis with the angioedema. Which diagnosis is suggested?

A. Hereditary angioedema

B. Food allergy

C. Enterovirus infection

D. Idiopathic angioedema

E. An ACE inhibitor was prescribed by her internist for hypertension

 Ans: A

 

45. In June, a 24-year-old female presents with angioedema of the face, including eyelids and lips. She has had two previous similar episodes. She always has  associated gas and diarrhea with the angioedema. She was previously skin tested and found to have sensitivities to milk, ragweed and molds. Which diagnosis is suggested?

A. Hereditary angioedema

B. Food allergy

C. Enterovirus infection

D. Idiopathic angioedema

E. An ACE inhibitor was prescribed by her internist for hypertension

 Ans:B

 

46. In June, a 24-year-old female presents with angioedema of the face, including eyelids and lips. She has had two previous similar episodes. This episode, like the previous ones, occurred during the summer and was accompanied by diarrhea, low grade fever once and classical urticarial lesions.

A. Hereditary angioedema

B. Food allergy

C. Enterovirus infection

D. Idiopathic angioedema

E. An ACE inhibitor was prescribed by her internist for hypertension

 Ans: D

 

47. Hereditary angioedema is:

A. Inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder

B. Usually associated with urticaria

C. Usually responsive to antihistamines

D. Can be managed with Danazol (synthetic androgenic steroid)

E. All of the above are correct

 Ans: D

 

48. Which of the following adverse drug reactions is believed to be due to IgEmediated mechanisms?

A. Aspirin induced anaphylaxis

B. Reaction to radiocontrast dye

C. Steven-Johnson’s Syndrome after a course of trimethoprim/sulfa

D. Wheezing, urticaria after administration of penicillin

E. None of the above

 Ans: D

 

49. Which of the following food allergies is most likely outgrown?

A. Milk

B. Peanut

C. Walnuts

D. Shellfish

E. All of the abova

 Ans: A

 

50. Indications for immunotherapy for hymenoptera allergy:

A. Children and adults with a history of a life-threatening reaction to a hymenoptera sting

B. People who have a history of a large local skin reaction that gets worse with each sting

C. Children with a history of generalized urticaria after a sting

D. Anyone with a family history of an allergic reaction to a hymenoptera sting

E. Patients with allergic rhinitis

 Ans: A

 

51. Eczema in an infant most commonly occurs in/on the:

A. Antecubitutal and Popliteal fossae

B. Perineal region

C. Scalp and flexural areas

D. Extensor surface of arm and legs

E. All of the above

 Ans: C

 

52. As part of the work up of adult asthma, which of the following reproducible, pre and post bronchodilator pulmonary function test results would be interpreted as showing significant reversibility?

A. a 15% increase in FEF 25-75%

B. a 15% increase in FEV1 (425 ml improvement)

C. a 20% increase in FEV1 (180 ml improvement)

D. a 15% increase in FEV1/FVC ratio

E. a 15% increase in FVC

 Ans: B

 

53. All of the following medications can affect late phase (including by prophylaxis of the immediate allergic response) response in asthma except:

A. Corticosteroids

B. Leukotriene modifiers

C. Cromolyn sodium

D. Albuterol

E. There is no such medication in the list

 Ans: D

 

54. Drug of choice for uncomplicated acute urticaria is:

A. Corticosteroid

B. Antihistamines (H2 type)

C. Antihistamines (H1 type)

D. Subcutaneous terbutaline

E. All of the above

 Ans: C

 

55. Reasonable recommendations for a patient with moderate persistent asthma poorly controlled on low dose inhaled corticosteroids include all except:

A. Add salmeterol inhaler BID

B. Double the dose of inhaled corticosteroid

C. Add a leukotriene modifier

D. Add nebulized cromolyn BID

E. All answers are correct

 Ans: D

 

56. Which of the following is a clear indication for penicillin allergy skin testing:

A. A 40-year-old patient with a history of anaphylaxis after ampicillin ten years ago. The patient now has endocarditis. Culture is positive for a streptococcal organism sensitive only to penicillin.

B. A 26-year-old patient with a history of Steven-Johnson’s Syndrome after receiving amoxicillin.

C. A 65-year-old ICU patient receiving penicillin and vancomycin with flushing and hypotension.

D. A 39-year-old female who, eleven days after taking penicillin for a strep pharyngitis, develops angioedema, arthralgias, urticaria and a low grade fever.

E. All of the above.

 Ans: A

 

57. The major advantage of second generation antihistamines is:

A. They do cross the blood brain barrier and help patients to relax

B. They are very long acting

C. They cause decongestion as well as decreasing rhinorrhea

D. They minimally cross the blood brain barrier and have a decreased sedation effect

E. They decrease appetite

 Ans: D

 

58. Which of the following types of infection are increased in patients with humoral or B-cell immune deficiencies?

A. Sinusitis

B. Otitis media

C. Pneumonia

D. Meningitis

E. All of the above

 Ans: E

 

59. The most common cause of chronic urticaria, especially in adults, is:

A. Food allergy

B. Connective tissue disease

C. Drug allergy

D. Idiopathic

E. Viral infections

 Ans: A

 

60. Congenital absence of the late complement components (C5, C6, C7, C8) is most often associated with:

A. Viral infections

B. Recurrent Neisserial infections

C. Lupus-like disease

D. Candidiasis

E. Delayed separation of the umbilical cord

 Ans: B

 

61. Congenital complement deficiencies are best screened by which of the following laboratory tests:

A. Quantitative immunoglobulins

B. NBT

C. Total CH50

D. C3, C4 and properdin

E. Flow Cytometry

 Ans: C

 

62. All of the following except one can be useful in managing atopic dermatitis:

A. Skin lubrication/moisturization

B. Controlling pruitus to reduce scratching

C. Immunotherapy (allergy injections)

D. Avoiding specific food allergy triggers

E. Topical therapy with steroid or non-steroid immune modulating agent(pimecolimus, tacrolimus)

 Ans: C

 

63. All of the following regarding aspirin intolerance are true except:

A. Patients with asthma are at no greater risk for aspirin intolerance than the general population

B. A proposed mechanism of aspirin intolerance involves aspirin’s effect on arachidonic acid metabolism

C. There is cross reactivity between aspirin and NSAID intolerance

D. Aspirin desensitization may be of benefit in a patient with aspirin intolerance who requires the drug

E. Leukotriene modifiers are particularly beneficial in most patients

 Ans: A

 

64. Which of the following tests would be most useful in helping to diagnose asthma:

A. Diffusing capacity

B. Pre and post bronchodilator FEV1

C. Arterial blood gases

D. Pulmonary functions pre- and post-methacholine challenge

E. B and D

 Ans: E

 

65. Conditions which may worsen asthma include (Identify the one incorrect choice):

A. Diabetes Mellitus

B. Sinusitis

C. Pregnancy

D. Cardiac disease

E. Gastro-esophageal reflux

 Ans: A

 

66. Which of the following is the most common underlying cause of asthma (Choose the one best answer):

A. Beta Blocker sensitivity

B. Aspirin sensitivity

C. Bronchitis

D. Sinusitis

E. Inhalant allergies 

 Ans: E

 

67. Inhaled corticosteroids (Choose the one incorrect answer):

A. Can be useful in patients who have persistent asthma

B. Can be useful in patients who require rescue inhaler 1-2 times per week

C. Can be used in 6-12 year-old children with asthma

D. Acutely increase peak flow rate, a measure of large airway function

E. Reduce airway hyper-reactivity

 Ans: D

 

68. A 40-year-old male presents to the Emergency Room complaining of hives, wheezing and difficulty breathing following an insect sting. Pulse is 120 beats/min. BP is 100/56. Immediate therapy should include which one of the following:

A. Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV

B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV

C. Epinephrine 0.3 ml (1:1000 aqueous) sub Q or IM

D. Cholorpheniramine 8 mg orally

E. None of the above

 Ans: C

 

69. A 40-year-old male presents to the Emergency Room complaining of hives, wheezing and difficulty breathing following an insect sting. Pulse is 120 beats/min.BP is 100/56. After Epinephrine is administered and quick assessment of the patient is done, you determine that the patient is moving air adequately and is not in shock. The next medication to give the patient immediately is:

A. Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV

B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV

C. Epinephrine 0.3 ml (1:1000 aqueous) sub Q or IM

D. Cholorpheniramine 8 mg orally

E. None of the above

 Ans: B

 

70. Which of the following symptoms is least common in patients with sinusitis?

A. Nasal congestion

B. Cough

C. Fever

D. “Post-nasal” drip

E. Mucopurulent rhinorrhea

 Ans: B

 

71. Which of the following would not suggest a FISH (Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization) test to identify DiGeorge syndrome?

A. Recurrent otitis media in a 3-year-old

B. Neonatal tetany

C. Pervasive developmental delay in a 6-year-old female

D. Recurrent/persistent otitis and diarrhea in a 6-month-old

E. None of the above

 Ans: C

 

72. Hereditary angioedema (C1 inhibitor deficiency) is characterized by all of the following except:

A. Frequent abdominal pain

B. Urticaria or hives

C. Low C4 levels during and between attacks

D. Family history of swelling

E. Absence of symptoms before puberty

 Ans: B

 

73. Common causes of acute urticaria include all of the following except:

A. Food allergy

B. Drug allergy

C. Viral infection

D. Inhalant allergy

E. Hymenoptera stings

 Ans: D

 

74. The two most common superinfections in atopic dermatitis are due to:

A. Staph aureus and Herpes simplex

B. Staph epidermidis and cutaneous viral infections

C. Staph aureus and Candida

D. Staph epidermidis and Candida

E. Acinetobacter and Herpes simplex

 Ans: A

 

75. The most common cause of contact dermatitis in general is:

A. Latex

B. Poison ivy, poison oak and poison sumac

C. Nickel

D. Dark-colored pigments in shoes and clothing

E. None of the above

 Ans: B

 

76. A 2-year-old with wheezing, persistent cough, a history of vomiting with cough, as well as hives and angioedema and increased cough after milk products comes to your office for evaluation. He drinks soy and grandma is not feeding him any milk products. He has been treated with prn albuterol nebulizer treatments with benefit in the past. On exam he has frequent congested cough, p = 112, r =26, shiners and Dennies lines. On chest exam he has transmitted upper airway rhonchi and coarse breath sounds but no wheezes or rales. Nasal exam reveals swollen pale nasal mucosa without any visible discharge. CXR shows increased bronchovascular markings without infiltrate but with hyperexpansion. What diagnostic lab information do you want to obtain?

A. CBC and diff, IgE and IgG RAST to milk and soy

B. CBC and diff, total IgE, IgG RAST to milk

C. CBC and diff, total IgE, and skin or RAST testing to milk, casein and soy

D. CBC, milk precipitins, IgE RAST to milk and casein

E. B and D

 Ans: C

 

77. The one true statement about anaphylaxis is

A. There are always skin findings rash, angioedema, etc.

B. People with recurrent anaphylaxis with no identifiable cause (idiopathic) are the most likely to carry adrenalin

C. After adrenalin, the most important medication to administer immediately is steroids

D. After adrenalin, the most important medication to administer promptly is an H2 blocker

E. The most likely patient to die of anaphylaxis has underlying asthma

 Ans: C

 

78. A 5-year-old boy lives in a smoking household and has a history of RSV bronchiolitis in infancy. He has been diagnosed with bronchitis at least once, and sometimes twice, every winter. He has sneezing and allergic salute in spring and fall. When he runs in kindergarten he often coughs but has no obvious shortness of breath. He wakes at night coughing only when he has bronchitis. He is unable to do full pulmonary functions. The historical information most suggestive of asthma in this child is:

A. Cough at night when ill

B. His allergic symptoms

C. RSV bronchiolitis in infancy

D. Cough with exercise

E. He has been living in a smoking household

 Ans: D

 

79. A 45-year-old woman with a strong family history of both allergies and glaucoma presents with frequent red eyes that sometimes itch, sometimes feel dry and sometimes water. On exam, bulbar conjunctivae are injected, palpebral conjunctiva are normal in color. Nasal mucosa is moderately swollen and pale. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Vernal conjunctivitis

B. Allergic conjunctivitis

C. Glaucoma

D. Dryness from hormone replacement

E. Behcet’s disease 

 Ans: B

 

80. An 8-year-old male has asthma symptoms about three times per month requiring the use of an albuterol inhaler, despite adequate inhaled steroid treatment. These episodes typically occur at night. The child is not allergic to his guinea pig or dust mites, and there is no smoking in the home. He has no problems with exercise and rarely needs albuterol during the day except when he has an upper respiratory tract viral infection. His FEV1 and PEFR are both >80% predicted. Based on this history,  the most likely trigger for his nighttime asthma is:

A. Allergic rhinitis

B. Obstructive sleep apnea

C. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD)

D. Drop in endrogenous corticosteroid levels at night

E. None of the above

 Ans: C

 

81. A 10-year-old girl has had asthma for 18 months. She typically complains of asthma symptoms 3 times per week on the average, with daily symptoms when she has a 

 

URIs. She has never been hospitalized for asthma but has had 2 ED visits for wheezing with URIs. She complains of cough and shortness of breath with strenuous 

 

exercise. Her FEV1 and PEFR are both >80% predicted. Her treatment to date has been an albuterol inhaler prn. At this point, the one clearly inadequate therapy for 

 

this patient is:

A. Start a leukotriene antagonist daily, albuterol inhaler prn and before

exercise

B. Start an inhaled corticosteroid at low to moderate dose, continue albuterol

prn and before exercise

C. Start the patient on a combined controller inhaler with inhaled steroid and

long acting bronchodilator

D. Start the patient on an inhaled steroid and leukotriene antagonist, and

albuterol inhaler before exercise and prn

E. All therapy strategies listed are adequate for this patient

 Ans: D

 

82. A 52-year-old male with known asthma for 27 years is seen in your office for a follow up of his asthma. He states his asthma has been in good control on his low

dose of inhaled corticosteroid. But when asked about albuterol use, he says he uses it 2-3 times daily. When asked about nighttime awakening due to asthma, he states

he awakes because of asthma 3 times per month. He also tells you his asthma has been in good control and that he has not missed a day of work. A PFT indicates he

has an FEV1 of 81% predicted. You would characterize his asthma as:

A. Mild intermittent

B. Mild persistent

C. Moderate persistent

D. Severe persistent

E. Well controlled asthma

 Ans: B

 

83. In treating allergic rhinitis, which of the following medication or medications control the symptoms of congestion, rhinorrhea and itching.

A. Antihistamine

B. Anticholinergic

C. Decongestant

D. Nasal corticosteroid

E. Anti-leukotriene receptor antagonist

 Ans: D

 

84. An 18-year-old teenager with a history of asthma as a young child, which she “outgrew” by the time she was in first grade, presents to her primary care physician 

 

in November 4 months pregnant, with wheezing and cough for the last month. On questioning, she admits to ragweed hayfever and frequent heartburn.

On exam, she is coughing at frequent intervals. Chest is clear to auscultation with fair breath sounds throughout. There is slightly prolonged expiratory phase. What

is the most appropriate treatment for this patient:

A. Prn albuterol inhaler, loratadine and calcium carbonate antacid.

B. Prn albuterol inhaler, beclomethasone inhaled corticosteroid and ranitidine.

C. Prn albuterol inhaler, budesonide inhaled corticosteroid, ranitidine and oral

steroid burst.

D. Prn albuterol inhaler, oral steroid burst and proton pump inhibitor.

E. Prn albuterol inhaler, course of erythromycin for possible mycoplasma

infection, calcium carbonate antacid.

 Ans: A

 

85. Complement activation is a part of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Type I

B. Type II and Type III

C. Type IV

D. Type III and IV

E. Type I and IV 

 Ans: B

 

86. After playing in the bushes during a camping trip, a 7-year-old girl complains of intense itching & blistering of the hands, arms, & legs. What is the most likel condition & what type of hypersensitivity reaction is she displaying?

A. Hives; Type I reaction

B. Hives; Type IV reaction

C. Contact Dermatitis; Type IV reaction

D. Contact Dermatitis; Type I reaction

E. SLE; Type V reaction

 Ans: C

 

87. Skin testing is useful in the diagnosis of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Type I

B. Type II and Type III

C. Type IV

D. Type III and IV

E. Type I and IV 

 Ans: E

 

88. Rh disease & Goodpasture's syndrome are which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

E. Type V

 Ans: B

 

89. Megakaryocytes are minimally immunoresponsive. What type of cell do megakaryocytes give rise to?

A. RBC

B. Platelets

C. Leukocytes

D. Monocytes

E. Mast cells

 Ans: B

 

90. A latent, measles-like viral infection &, presumably, a defect in cellular immunity is associated with which of the following diseases?

A. Hereditary angioedema

B. Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)

C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

D. DiGeorge syndrome

E. Bruton disease

 Ans: C

 

91. What host cell membrane structures enable the attachment of a virus like human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A. Ion channels

B. Nuclear pores

C. Ribosomes

D. Receptors

E. All of the above 

 Ans: D

 

92. Name the process a cell such as a neutrophil or a macrophage uses to ingest (eat) its prey.

A. Halitosis

B. Chemotaxis

C. Botulism

D. Phagocytosis

E. Pinocytosis 

 Ans: D

 

93. In HIV infection, reverse transcription describes which of the following?

A. Converting viral DNA into RNA

B. Converting viral RNA into DNA

C. Converting proteins into viral RNA

D. Both A and B

E. Both B and C

 Ans: B

 

94. Which of these produces and secretes antibodies in the body?

A. Bacteria

B. Plasma Cell

C. Red blood cell

D. Virus

E. Both A and D

 Ans: B

 

95. What's a specific term for a bacterial or other foreign protein that initiates antibody production by the body?

A. Peptide

B. MHC II molecule

C. Complement

D. Antigen

E. Allergen

 Ans: D

 

96. What product of the immune system attaches to bacteria, making them easier to eat by white blood cells?

A. Hemoglobin

B. Antibody

C. Antigen

D. Both A and B

E. Both B and C

 Ans: B

 

97. What is an important mechanism white blood cells use to kill bacteria, fungi and other invading pathogens?

A. Asphyxiation

B. Oxidative activity

C. Fright

D. Drowning

E. All of the above 

 Ans: B

 

98. What is the term applied to white blood cells squeezing between endothelial cells lining the blood vessel to reach the site of an infection?

A. Diapedesis

B. Chemotaxis

C. Phagocytosis

D. Enucleation

E. All of the above

 Ans: A

 

99.What HIV protein helps insert the HIV provirus into the host's DNA?

A. Transcriptase

B. Integrase

C. Protease

D. Dismutase

E. Oxydase

 Ans: B

 

100. What main characteristic of HIV makes the virus difficult to treat with a single drug?

A. Its ability to destroy drugs

B. Impenetrable capsule

C. Its ability to mutate

D. Its environmental durability

E. RNA containing

Ans: C