Forensic Medicine Multiple choice Questions & Answers

Posted On:February 11, 2019, Posted By: Latest Interview Questions, Views: 10391, Rating :

Best Forensic Medicine Objective type Questions and Answers

Dear Readers, Welcome to Forensic Medicine Objective Questions and Answers have been designed specially to get you acquainted with the nature of questions you may encounter during your Job interview for the subject of Forensic Medicine Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Forensic Medicine Questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many Medical Industry.

1.Law does not consider the following doctrine in a charge of criminal negligence

a) Vicarious liability                                              

b) Contributory negligence

c) Resipsa loquitur

d) Novus actus interveniens


MCQs on Forensic Medicine

2.The following may be the examples of privileged communication except:

a) An impotent person marrying                           

b) A syphilitic taking bath in a public pool

c) Engine driver found to be color blind

d) Pilot having hypermetropia



3.Which of the following sections of IPC are concerned with dowry death?

a) 300                         







4.A civil wrong is known as:

a) Mutatis mutandis                 

b) Pari passu                     

c) Tort                               

d) Ultra wires



5.A person is declared dead if he is not found for

a) 2 years                    

b) 7 years                          

c) 15 years                         

d) 30 years



6.Professional death sentence is

a) Imprisonment for whole life                                            

b) Rigorous imprisonment

c) Erasing the name from the panel of RMPs

d) None



7.Normal courtesy of one doctor towards another is according to

a) Medical etiquette    

b) Medical ethics               

c) Both                              

d) None



8.Patient of head injury, has no relatives, requires urgent cranial decompression Doctor should

a) Operate without formal consent

b) Take police consent

c) Wait for relatives

d) Take



9.A doctor should not take fees for issuing certificate

a) To a govt.employee              

b) Death certificate            

c) Poor patient     

d) Psychiatric patient



10.McNaughten's rule:

a) Section 84              

b) Section 85                      

c) Section 86                      




11.Disciplinary control over registered medical practitioners is under:

a) Sate medical council

b) Indian medical council

c) Director of Medical and Health services

d) Health secretary of state Government



12. WTio can commute a death sentence:

a)High court

b) Supreme court

c) President

d) Any of the above



13.Death sentence can be awarded by

a)First class magistrate

b) Second class magistrate

c)  Sessions court

d) Chief judicial magistrate



14. India, inquest is carried out by all except


b) Coroner

c) Doctor

d) Magistrate




15.Criminal responsibility in Indian constitution is included in IPC section:








16.A boy attempts suicide, brought to PRIVATE doctor and he is successfully cured. Doctor should

a) Inform police

b) Not required to inform

c) Report to magistrate

d) Call up girl friend and ask her to make up




17.Who can be considered as an expert witness:

a) Medical men          

b) Firearm expert                

c) Chemical examiner         





18.The power of Amnesty for capital punishment is vested with

a) The president        

b) Supreme court

c) High Court

d) The Governor




19.A cognizable offence signifies:

a) Imprisonment upto 2 yrs                                  

b) Imprisonment upto 3 yrs + Rs. 1000 fine

c) Arrest without warrant

d) Only fine upto Rs. 1000




20.Conduct money is paid to expert witness with summons from:  

a) Civil Court             

b)Criminal Court               

c) High Court                    

d) Sub Magistrate




21.Leading questions are permitted only in

a) Examination in chief                                     

b) Cross examination

c) Dying declaration

d) Re- examination




22.For exhumation the order should be passed by

a) Chief judicial magistrate       

b) Executive magistrate      

c) Police officer    

d) Sessions judge




23.Which of the following is true about Oath?

a) Not Compulsory

b) Compulsory and binds witness for evidence given

c)Holds witness responsible for consequences of evidence

d)Witness is liable for prosecution if he does not take oath




24.In case of death in lock up, the inquest is held by:

a) A police officer      

b) A Magistrate   

c) A panchayat officer       

d) District Attorney




25.Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by doctor, staff or hospital is

a) Therapeutic misadventure                               

b) Vicarious liability

c) Therapeutic privilege

d) Diminished liability




26.Medico legal autopsy required the permission of

a) Relatives                

b) Medical Superintendent              

c) Police              

d) Magistrate




27.An arrested person can request the magistrate for a medical examination of his    body by a registered medical practitioner as per the following provision in the     code of criminal procedure

a) Section 53

b) Section 54

c) Section 56

d) Section 57   




28.After post mortem exam body has to be handed over to

a) Investigating police officer                              

b) Relatives of victim

c) Magistrate

d) The civil authorities




29.A quack gives a penicillin injection to a patient who dies due to it. Will the quack be relieved  for his criminal responsibility by raising a plea of accident?

a) Definitely   

b) Likely to        

c) Never        

d) Deserves to be acquitted on the strength of evidence




30.The sentence awarded by a court may be enhanced by the:

a) Magistrate court   

b) High court

c) Higher court

d) None of the above




31.Negligence on the part of the father towards the son can be punished undersection 

a) 319







32.Which carries more weight in a court of law?

a) Dying declaration    

b) Dying deposition   

c) Both carry the same weight       

d) Both are not significant




33.  Dying deposition is more important than dying declaration because it is

a) Made to a magistrate

b) Oath is taken

c) Made in presence of accused

d) Cross examination is permitted




34.Doctor is

a) Expert witness       

b) Common witness


d) None




35.The common type of inquest in India is:

a) Coroner's inquest

b) Police inquest

c) Judicial magistrates inquest

d) Medical examiner's inquest




36. The inquiry into the circumstances of death is called:

a) Homicide enquiry report

b) Inquest repot

c) Open verdict

d) Adjourned verdict




37.  For dowry death punishment is:

a) 3 year imprisonment + Rs. 10,000/-

b) 5 year imprisonment + Rs. 15,000/-

c) 7 year imprisonment + Rs.20,000/-

d) 2 year imprisonment + Rs. 15,000/-




38.Criminal responsibility of a person of unsound mind in India is incorporated in the Indian penal code:

a) Section 32

b) Section 84

c) Section 85

d) Section 88       




39.  An order for exhumation can be given by:

a) District collector      

b) Additional district magistrate     

c) Sub collector

d) Any of the above




40. Perjury is

a) Willful utterance of falsehood 

b) Grievous injury

c) Contributory negligence

d) Criminal negligence




41.   Subpoena is a kind of:

a) Decomposed body tissue   

b) Designation    

c) Document

d) Court tribunal




42.Dying declaration can be received by:

a) Medical officer      

b) Lawyer

c) Police officer

d) All




43.Exhumation can be done in India

a) After 7 years

b) After 2 years

c) After 10 years

d) At any time




44.Repeated advertisement in newspaper by a medical practitioner is an example of

a) Infamous conduct

b) Ethical negligence

c) Criminal negligence

d) Privileged Communication




45.According to IPC section 320, grievous hurt is

a) Permanent privation of one eye                      

b) Permanent privation of one joint

c) Emasculation

d) All of the above




46.Exhumation is usually done in the:

a) Early Morning       

b) Evening

d) Any time

c) Night




47.Section 302 of Indian penal code is for:

a) Rape

b) Murder 

c) Grievous hurt

d) Attempt to commit suicide




48.Coroner's court is present at:

a) Bombay

b) Delhi

c) Madras

d) Bangalore        

e) Chandigarh




49.Dying deposition is recorded by:

a) Doctor

b) Magistrate

c) Police officer

d) Lawyer




50.Summons are served

a) With penalty in criminal cases only 

b) With penalty in civil cases only 

c) With penalty in all cases

d) Without penalty in any type of case





51. Professional secrecy can be divulged:

a) If the doctor feels so

b) On demand by a court   

c) Both

d) None




52. Medical certificate is:

a) Documentary evidence       

b) Oral evidence

c) Hearsay evidence

d) Parole




53. In case of death in lock up, the inquest is held by:

a) A police officer     

b) A magistrate

c) A panchayat officer       

d) District attorney




54.  In esse of malpractice punishment is given by

a) State medical council

b) MCI


d) High court




55.All the following are the conditions of defense available for a doctor against     allegation of negligence except

a) Medical maloccurrence

b) No fee for treatment charged

c) Therapeutic misadventure

d) Res Judicata

e) Error of judgment




56. Medico legal autopsy requires the permission of

a) Police

b) Magistrate

c) Relatives

d) Medical superintendent




57. Grievous hurt is punishable under section

a) 320







58. Criminal negligence is punishable under:

a) 306 IPC

b) 376 IPC






59.Second molar erupts at

a) 6 years

b) 12 years

c) 18 to 22 years

d) 25 to 28 years




60.Identical twins may not have

a) Same DNA finger print 

b) Same finger print pattern

c) Same blood group 

d) Same HLA system




61.What is'DNA'finger printing

a)Identification of a person finger printing by using genetic engineering method

b)A record of a persons genetic make up

c)Identification of persons by genetic analysis

d) None of the above




62.Skull of a male differs from that of a female by all of the following except

a) Capacity greater than 1500 c.c

b) Muscular markings over occiput are less marked

c) Orbits square

d) Frontal eminence small




63.Eruption of temporary teeth will be completed by:

a) One to one and half years

b) Two to two and half years

c) Three to four years

d) Four to five years




64.The age of a 15 year old female is best determined by the radiograph of:

a) Lower end of Radius and Ulna

b) Upper end of Humerus

c) Upper end of radius and ulna

d) Xiphisternum




65.First finger loop bureau was established in

a) London

b) Paris

c) Calcutta

d) Madras




66.Closure of coronal sutures starts at the age of:

a) 20 years                

b) 21 years   

c) 30-35 years                    

d) 50-60 years




67.Brachiocephaly is due to fusion of

a) Saggital suture      

b) Coronal suture

c) Parietal suture

d) Lambdoid suture




68.Cephalic index is useful in determining

a) Age                      

b) Sex                        

c) Race                              

d) Stature




69.Union of epiphysis at the age of 17 occurs in:

a) Head of femur       

b) Head of humerus         

c) Lower end of femur        

d) All the above




70.  100% sure differentiation of sex is possible by pelvic assessment of all except

a) Subpubic angle     

b) Obturator foramen

c) Preauricular sulcus        

d) Greater sciatic notch




71. Foetal parts can be detected by X-ray usually by:

a) 8 weeks

b) 12 weeks

c) 14 weeks

d) 16 weeks




72.  To determine the age of a 16 year old girl which of the following is to be radiographed? 

a) Wrist

b) Knee

c) Ankle

d) Elbow




73.A girl of 10 years will have permanent and temporary teeth:

a) 8,12


c) 12,12

d) 16,8




74. Multiplying factor of estimating stature from femur (male) is:

a) 3.6-8.8

b) 4.1-4.8

c) 4.9-5.6

d) 5.8-6.2




75.If angle of mandible is obtuse it means that the bone belongs to

a) Adult male

b) Adult female

c) Young female child        

d) Elderly person




76. Best method for identification of a person is by

a) Scars

b) Blood group

c) DNA Analysis

d) Finger prints




77.Super imposition technique is used in:

a) Skull

b) Pelvis

c) Femur





78.Patella completely ossify by the age of:

a) 6 years

b) 10 years

c) 14 years

d) 21 years




79.Human hair differs from animal hair by that

a) Cuticle has scales

b) Medulla is thick

c) Medulla is broader than cortex

d) Pigment is central




80.A female pelvis differs from male pelvis by that:

a) Obtuse subpubic angle

b) Broad greater sciatic foramen

c) Broad lesser sciatic foramen

d) Prominent muscle markings




81.The center of ossification appears in the lower end of femur by

a) 36 weeks of intrauterine life

b) 34 weeks of intrauterine life

c) 32 weeks of intrauterine life

d) 30 weeks of intrauterine life




82.Female pelvis is differentiated from male pelvis by

a) Iliac crest

b) Preauricular sulcus well marked

c) Preauricular sulcus less differentiated

d) Pubic symphysis




83.Absent fragmented medulla in hair is seen in all except

a) Negroid

b) Aryans

c) Mongoloids

d) Caucasians




84.Pre-auricular sulcus is used for:

a) Determination of race

b) Determination of age     

c) Determination of sex      

d) None of the above




85.  Pure Aryans have which type of skull:

a) Measticephalic

b) Bradycephalic 

c) Dolicocephalic

d) None of the above




86.Pearson's formula is used for:

a) Cephalic index

b) Stature

c) Race

d) Age




87.Best specimen of bone for sex determination is

a) Femur

b) Pelvis

c) Skull

d) Mandible




89.Which of the following is best for establishing identity

a) Anthropometry

b) Dactylography

c) Hair examination

d) Blood




89. The period of mixed dentition is between the ages of

a) 2-5 years

b) 6-11 years

c) 12-14 years

d) 15-17 years




90.  Multiplying factor for estimating stature from humerus is (males):

a) 10-12







91.  Estimation of age examination of teeth is by

a) Pearson's method   

b) Gustafson's method

c) Galton's method      

d) Bertillon's method




92. Most reliable method of identification of a person is

a) Gustafson method

b) Galton method

c) Anthropometry

d) Scars




93.   A child at the age of 7 years has how many teeth:

a) 16







94.The most reliable bones for the purpose of medullary index are the following except:

a) Humerus

b) Tibia

c) Radius

d) Sternum




95.Ossification centre appearing just hefjpre birth is:

a) Lower end of femur             

b) Lower end of tibia         

c) Upper end of humerus   

d) Scaphoid




96.To make a positive identification with the help of a partial finger point, the points of similarity should be at least:

a) 10

b) 12






97.Best method to determine age upto ,14 years is

a) Ossification centres

b) Dentition

c) Anthropometry

d)head circumference




98.Best method for identification of human is

a) Blood grouping     

b) Dactylography

c) Anthropometry




99.Lower end of the femur can help to determine the:

a) Age

b) Height

c) Weight




100. Most common type of finger print is

a) Loop

b) Arch

c) Composite