Epidemiology Interview Questions & Answers

Posted On:April 21, 2019, Posted By: Latest Interview Questions, Views: 260, Rating :

Best Epidemiology Interview Questions and Answers

Dear Readers, Welcome to Epidemiology Objective Questions and Answers have been designed specially to get you acquainted with the nature of questions you may encounter during your Job interview for the subject of Epidemiology Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Epidemiology Questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many Medical Industry.

1) All of the following are true of odds ratio except:

A) It is an estimate of relative risk

B) It is the only measure of risk that can be obtained directly form a case-control study

C) It tends to be biased towards 1 (neither risk or protection at high rates of disease

D) It is the ratio of incidence in exposed divided by incidence in nonexposed 

E) It can be calculated without data on rates (as in a case-control study

Ans: D

Interview Questions on Epidemiology

2) In a well designed clinical trial of treatment of ovarian cancer, remission rate at one year is similar for a new drug and usual care, The P-value is 0.4. This means that

A) Both treatments are effective

B) Neither treatment is effective

C) The statistical power of this study is 60%

D) The best estimate of treatment effect is 0,4

E) It is not possible to decide on whether one treatment is better than the other using this information alone 

Ans: E

 

3) A study was made of a clinician’s ability to diagnose streptococcal throat infections in 149 patients coming to the emergency department in a certain hospital. The doctor’s clinical impressions were compared to results of throat cultures or group A streptococcus. 37 patients had positive throat cultures and 27 of these were diagnosed by doctor as having strep throat. 112 patients had negative cultures, and the doctors diagnosed 35 of these as having strep throat. The specificity of the doctors’ clinical judgment was:

A) 27/37

B) 77/112 

C) 27/62

D) 10/87

E) 104/149

Ans: B

 

4) From the study in Question 3, the predictive value of the doctors’ clinical judgment for streptococcal sore throat was:

A) 27/37

B) 77/112

C) 27/62 

D) 10/87

E) 104/149

Ans: C

 

5) The mode of transport of an infectous agent through the environment to a susceptible host is called a:

A) carrier

B) reservoir

C) vector

D) vehicle 

Ans: D

 

6) A longitudinal or prospective study is also referred to as an

A) ecological study

B) cross-sectional study

C) cohort study 

D) observational study

Ans: C

 

7) The following drug trial is synonymous with the term “clinical trial”?

A) Clinical pharmacology and toxicity

B) Full scale Evaluation of Treatment 

C) Initial Clinical Investigation for Treatment Effect

D) Post marketing Survelillance

Ans: B

 

8) When designing a study to determine whether there is a direct association between a particular exposure and an outcome, one should anticipate that potential alternative explanations may exist. Which of the following is a way to deal with confounding?

A) Post-hoc blocking

B) Randomization 

C) Screening

D) Validation

Ans: B

 

9) Cedar Rivers is a community of 100,000 persons in central Iowa. During the year of the floods (2008 there were 1,000 deaths from all causes. A study of all cases of tuberculosis found the number of deaths at 300 (200 males and 100 females. During 2007, there were only 60 deaths from tuberculosis, 50 of them males. The crude mortality rate for Cedar Rivers in 2008 was:

A) 300 per 100,000

B) 60 per 1,000

C) 10 per 1,000 

D) 100 per 11000

Ans: C

 

10) What index does the research center use for patients using a tartar control toothpaste for 6 lower anterior teeth?

A) Navy Plaque Index

B) Volpe-Manhold Calculus Index 

C) OHI-S

D) Turesky Modification of the Quigley Hein

Ans: B

 

11) In the DMF caries index for teeth and tooth surfaces, are 3rd molars included if they are decayed, missing, or filled?

A) Yes

B) No 

 

12) An epidemic is a disease occurring over a wide geographic area and affecting a high proportion of the population.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

13) What kind of decay is the DMFT & S signifying?

A) Irreversible decay 

B) Reversible decay

Ans: A

 

14) If you were doing a plaque index with debri for a group of preschool children, which one would you use?

A) def

B) Pl I

C) OHI-S 

D) PHP

Ans: C

 

15) What is the most accurate description of an agreement of findings by two or more examiners?

A) Intraexaminer

B) Intrarater

C) Interexaminer 

D) Interpreter

Ans: C

 

16) An endemic is an occurrence of disease clealy in excess of normal expectancy.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

17) The “e” in the def index stands for indicated for extraction. If a patient has teeth indicated for extraction for orthodontics, are they included in this index?

A) Yes

B) No 

Ans: B

 

18) Which index would you use for a group of elderly patients in a nursing home?

A) Plaque Index

B) Patient Hygiene Performance

C) Gingival Index

D) Root Caries Index 

Ans: D

 

19) In measuring the reliability of a measurement, an intraexaminer or intrarater reliability is consistency of findings by one examiner with those previously recorded by the same examiner.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

20) Which index uses the WHO probe to calculate scores?

A) Turesky

B) Eastman Interdental Bleeding Index

C) Sulcus Bleeding Index

D) Periodontal Screening and Recording Index 

Ans: D

 

21) Recurrent caries fall under which category?

A) Decayed 

B) Missing

C) Filled

D) Indicated for Extraction

Ans: A

 

22) Root caries can fall under the Decayed portion of the DMFT index.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

23) What is a proportion that uses a standard denominator and includes a time interval (1,000, 10,000, or 100,000 per year?

A) Rates 

B) Counts

C) Proportions

D) Index

Ans: A

 

24) Which index would you instruct your patient to use to calculate plaque control at home with disclosing solution or tablets?

A) Plaque Control Record (O’Leary’s) 

B) PI I

C) Patient Hygiene Performance

D) Plaque Free Score

Ans: A

 

25) What is the name of the index that measures occlusion?

A) O’Leary’s

B) O’Sullivan’s

C) Angle’s 

D) Dean’s

Ans: C

 

26) You have a 9 year old patient with a mixed dentition. Which index would you use to calculate decay?

A) DMFT and def combined

B) def

C) dmft 

D) DMFS

Ans: C

 

27) A 2.5 score on the Gingival Index indicates what?

A) Excellence

B) Good

C) Fair

D) Poor 

Ans: D

 

28) Which index uses floss to calculate scores?

A) Periodontal Screening and Recording

B) Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs

C) Gingival Bleeding Index 

D) Eastman Interdental Bleeding Index

Ans: C

 

21) Which index is measured with bleeding on probing?

A) Gingival Index

B) Sulcus Bleeding Index 

C) Gingival Bleeding Index

D) Eastman Interdental Bleeding Index

Ans: B

 

22) Which index uses a stimudent to measure papillary bleeding?

A) Sulcus Bleeding Index

B) Gingival Bleeding Index

C) Eastman Interdental Bleeding Index 

D) Russel’s Periodontal Index

Ans: C

 

23) Oral epidemiology is the study of disease and health in populations.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

24) Which one does not indicate an asterisk on WHO probing on the Periodontal Screening & Recording Index?

A) indicated for extraction 

B) mobility

C) marked recession

D) mucogingival involvement

Ans: A

 

25) The gingival indexes are reversible, just like the disease itself.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

26) What is the agent when studying oral epidemiology?

A) Host

B) Environment

C) Disease 

D) Population

Ans: C

 

27) The Greek word “edemos” means what?

A) Native 

B) Epidemiology

C) People

D) All

Ans: A

 

28) Morbidity is the rate of disease or proportion of diseased persons in a geographic area.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

29) Mortality is the proportion of people who live from a disease to the population of a geographic area for a period of time.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

30) A count is a percentage method to measure oral disease.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

31) Diagnosis of caries includes what criteria of measurement?

A) Lost of at least 5 mm of tooth structure at enamel surface

B) 0.5mm

C) .005mm

D) .05mm 

Ans: D

 

32) Morbidity is also known as the death rate in a population.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

33) The “S” in DMFS stands for what?

A) Sealants

B) Surfaces 

C) Sulcus Depth

D) Standard

Ans: B

 

34) The “M” in DMFT stands for missing for what reason?

A) Congenitally missing teeth

B) Indicated for Extraction due to Caries 

C) Indicated for Extraction for Ortho

D) Deciduous teeth exfoliated

Ans: B

 

35) Deciduous teeth indexes (def can also be used to detect teeth and also surfaces with decay on deciduous teeth).

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

36) A DMFT & S index can calculate the indication of the # of teeth at risk for decay.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

37) What is the MOST COMMONLY used index to score plaque?

A) OHI-S Oral Hygiene Simplified

B) PI I Plaque Index 

C) Turesky Modification of the Quigley Hein

D) Plaque Control Record

Ans: B

 

38) O’Leary’s Plaque Index is good for calculating plaque accumulation for a group of people.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

39) The OHI-S (Oral Hygiene Index Simplified measures supra and subgingival calculus).

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

40) How many surfaces are used in measuring the Patient Hygiene Performance (PHP index)?

A) 4

B) 5

C) 6 

D) 7

Ans: C

 

41) The PHP and OHI-S both use the 6 Ramjford teeth to calculate scores.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

42) Which index do you use disclosing solution on the patient, but do not rinse?

A) PHP 

B) OHI-S

C) O’Leary’s

D) Plaque Control Record

Ans: A

 

43) The gingival index is measured by inflammation and bleeding on probing.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

44) The PHP measures plaque and debri on tooth surfaces.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

45) The GI Gingival Index is also called what?

A) Loe and Silness 

B) Volpe Manhold

C) O’Leary’s

D) Eastman’s

Ans: A

 

46) The OHI-S Simplified Oral Hygiene Index measures what?

A) Plaque and Debri on tooth surface

B) Thickness of Plaque on tooth surface

C) Presence of Plaque on tooth surface

D) Existing Plaque and Calculus on tooth surface 

Ans: D

 

47) The Periodontal Index (Russel’s is no longer used because gingivitis and periodontitis are separate diseases.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

48) What are the Ramjford Teeth?

A) 3, 8, 14, 19, 24, 30

B) 2, 3, 14, 19, 24, 30

C) 3, 9, 12, 19, 25, 28 

D) 3, 8, 12, 15, 30, 31

Ans: C

 

49) The Community Periodontal Index of Treatment needs measures teeth in sextants.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

50) The CPITN is the most common index used for periodontal screenings.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

51) Bleeding indexes indicate a 0 for no bleeding and a 1 for bleeding.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

52) What is the most common index for plaque in clinical research trials?

A) Volpe Manhold

B) PI I

C) O’Leary’s

D) Turesky Modification of the Quigley Hein 

Ans: D

 

53) In dental fluorosis the enamel is strong, but discolored.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

54) Less than 50% of surfaces covered would be what category of Dean’s Fluorosis?

A) Questionable

B) Very Mild

C) Mild 

D) Moderate

Ans: C

 

55) Characteristics of dental fluorosis includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) opacities concentrated in center of tooth 

B) bilateral occurrences

C) severity on posterior teeth

D) usually near cusp tips

Ans: A

 

56) The range for Dean’s Fluorosis Index is what?

A) 0-5 

B) 0-3

C) 0-4

D) 0-7

Ans: A

 

57) A score of 3 on Dean’s Fluorosis Index would indicate what?

A) Very Mild

B) Mild 

C) Moderate

D) Severe

Ans: B

 

58) Which index out of all discussed in the most sensitive indicating it has the longest range of scoring?

A) Dean’s Fluorosis

B) Thylstrup-Fejerskov 

C) TSIF

D) OHI-S

Ans: B

 

59) Fluorosis can typically occur on a single tooth.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

60) Brown stain starts coming into play on what level of Dean’s Fluorosis?

A) Very Mild

B) Mild

C) Moderate 

D) Severe

Ans: C

 

61) Pitting occurs on what level of fluorosis?

A) Very Mild

B) Mild

C) Moderate

D) Severe 

Ans: D

 

62) Teeth are dried to detect fluorosis in Thylstrup-Fejerskov and TSIF.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

63) In the Navy Plaque Index, a Pocket Score of 8 means what?

A) depths of 1-3mm

B) depths of 3-5mm

C) depths of 8mm+

D) depths of 5mm+ 

Ans: D

 

64) At what level of TSIF (Tooth Surface Index of Fluorosis does pitting start to occur?

A) 4

B) 5 

C) 6

D) 7

Ans: B

 

65) At what level does staining occur on the TSIF?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4 

D) 5

Ans: C

 

66) Oral Cancer cases are more commonly found in African Americans.

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

67) A gingival score of 2 on the Navy Plaque Index indicates what?

A) Gingival Tissue normal and tight

B) Inflammation completely surrounding tooth 

C) Slight enlargement or blunting of papilla

D) Inflammatory changes are present, but not do completely encircle tooth.

Ans: B

 

68) The Pl I measures what?

A) Thickness of plaque 

B) Presence of plaque

C) Existing plaque and calculus

D) Plaque and debri on tooth surface

Ans: A

 

69) The Simplified Oral Hygiene Index uses disclosing solution and measures plaque only.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

70) An excellent score on the Plaque Index would be what?

A) 0.5 

B) 10%

C) 100%

D) 3

Ans: A

 

71) Patient Hygiene Performance uses the Ramjford teeth.

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

72) A score of 2 on the Patient Hygiene Performance Index would indicate what kind of score?

A) Excellent

B) Good

C) Fair 

D) Poor

Ans: C

 

73) A Code 4 on the Loss of Attachment Index indicates what?

A) 5.5mm+ LOA

B) 4mm+ LOA

C) 9-11mm LOA

D) 12mm+ LOA 

Ans: D

 

74) What is the only index that measures attachment loss?

A) Periodontal Index

B) Periodontal Disease Index

C) CPI

D) LPA 

Ans: D

 

75) A score of 3 on the Turesky Modification indicates what?

A) Cervical plaque only

B) Less than 2/3 of the tooth covered

C) 2/3+

D) A band of plaque 

 

76) The Index of Periodontal Screening and Recording is best described at measuring what?

A) Attachment Loss

B) State of Perio Health 

C) Perio Treatment Needs

D) Pockets, Calculus, and Bleeding

Ans: B

 

77) A Code 4 on the CPITN indicates what?

A) Oral Hygiene Instruction

B) Supra/Subgingival Calculus w/ defective restorations

C) 4-5mm pockets

D) 6mm+ pockets 

Ans: D

 

78) How many teeth per sextant are calculated on the Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs (CPITN?

A) 1

B) 2 

C) 3

D) 4

Ans: B

 

79) The Turesky Modification of the Quigley Hein has a range of scores of what?

A) 0-5 

B) 0-7

C) 0-8

D) 0%-100%

Ans: A

 

80) A Code 4 on the Periodontal Screening and Recording Index indicates what?

A) Supragingival calculus and defective margins

B) Black on probe partly visible

C) Black on probe completely disappears 

D) Black visible on probe and bleeding occurs

Ans: C

 

81) A score of 1 on the Gingival Index would indicate what kind of results?

A) Excellent

B) Good 

C) Fair

D) Poor

Ans: B

 

82) Describe the disadvantages of the case control study

A) A cohort is different because an entire cohort of exposed individuals is examined. A case study makes use of limited number of cases and controls who usually do not represent an entire cohort of exposed individuals.

B) the measurement of exposure may be inaccurate. Representativeness of cases and controls may be unknown and may provide indirect estimates of risk. The temporal relationship between exposure factor and outcome cannot always be determined.

C) For an observational designed study, the observer does not have control over the exposure factor. Mostly, cannot assign subjects by random to certain study conditions. For an experimentally designed study the observer can control who is exposed to certain factors and is able to assign subjects by random to certain study groups.

Ans: B

 

83) Describe the uses of analytic studies

A) They help lead to the prevention of disease, create quantitative evaluations of intervention programs as well as determine safe and effective new drugs, and other procedures. 

B) This is something that describes the negative because you cannot always take the findings from group data and apply it to individuals.

C) the units of analysis are groups. This can be referred to as an Ecological Comparison Study.

Ans: A

 

84) Identify an example of a case control study

A) are used very commonly in environmental epidemiologic research. An example may be possible health effects of exposure to electromagnetic fields. 

B) Allowance of the direct observation of risk. The exposure factor is well defined and can study exposures that are uncommon in the population. The temporal relationship between factor and outcome is known.

C) the units of analysis are groups. This can be referred to as an Ecological Comparison Study.

Ans: A

 

85) Describe the advantages of the case control study

A) The ecologic fallacy and imprecise measurement of exposure.

B) it can be used to study conditions of low prevalence. The procedure is mostly quick and easy to complete, and is inexpensive. Lastly, the number subjects needed are smaller.

C) Refers to the difference between the incidence rate of a disease in the exposed group and the incidence rate in the non-exposed group. Attributable risk is the difference between two incidence rates.

Ans: B

 

86) Explain the ecologic fallacy

A) This is something that describes the negative because you cannot always take the findings from group data and apply it to individuals.

B) Conduct the program several times in a variety of settings with a variety of participants.

C) This refers to the adoption of policies, laws, and programs that are supported by empirical data. One of the most reliable forms of evidence will come from randomized controlled trials.

Ans: A

 

87) Contrast the 2 categories of analytic studies

A) For an observational designed study, the observer does not have control over the exposure factor. Mostly, cannot assign subjects by random to certain study conditions. For an experimentally designed study the observer can control who is exposed to certain factors and is able to assign subjects by random to certain study groups. 

B) This test can be used to test between two medical tests themselves. Such as HIV blood test vs the HIV swab test. Which one is most efficient and yields the best results.

C) This is the association between two variables, the exposure and the outcome, and are measured at the group level.

Ans: A

 

88) Describe the ecologic correlation

A) It is the best because if the sensitivity test correctly identifies all potential cases as either negative or positive.

B) A clinical trial refers to a research activity that involves the administration of a test regimen to humans to evaluate its efficacy and safety.

C) This is the association between two variables, the exposure and the outcome, and are measured at the group level.

Ans: C

 

89) Explain the ecologic study

A) They help lead to the prevention of disease, create quantitative evaluations of intervention programs as well as determine safe and effective new drugs, and other procedures.

B) the units of analysis are groups. This can be referred to as an Ecological Comparison Study. 

C) This is beneficial because an association can be found between exposure rates and disease rates during the same time period.

Ans: B

 

90) Describe the drawbacks of the ecologic study

A) are used very commonly in environmental epidemiologic research. An example may be possible health effects of exposure to electromagnetic fields.

B) Mass screening is defined as the standards of care, anyone that could at risks should be screened for exposure.

C) The ecologic fallacy and imprecise measurement of exposure.

Ans: C

 

91) Describe the benefits of the ecologic study

A) the measurement of exposure may be inaccurate. Representativeness of cases and controls may be unknown and may provide indirect estimates of risk. The temporal relationship between exposure factor and outcome cannot always be determined.

B) This is beneficial because an association can be found between exposure rates and disease rates during the same time period.

C) The predictive value is the proportion of people screened positive by a test and actually have the disease, this is the + value.

Ans: B

 

92) Explain the population risk difference

A) This is the difference between the rate of disease in the nonexposed segment of the population and the overall rate in the population.

B) is designed to test preventive measures

C) These are a form of intervention studies, two types are randomized controlled trials and quasiexperiments

Ans: A

 

93) Explain experimental studies

A) This is the difference between the rate of disease in the nonexposed segment of the population and the overall rate in the population.

B) These are a form of intervention studies, two types are randomized controlled trials and quasiexperiments 

C) is designed to test preventive measures

Ans: B

 

94) Define Prophylactic trials

A) evaluates new treatment methods

B) involves the administration of a test regimen to humans to evaluate its efficacy and safety.

C) is designed to test preventive measures 

Ans: C

 

95) Define Therapeutic trials

A) is designed to test preventive measures

B) evaluates new treatment methods 

C) involves the administration of a test regimen to humans to evaluate its efficacy and safety.

Ans: B

 

96) Define Clinical trials

A) involves the administration of a test regimen to humans to evaluate its efficacy and safety. 

B) is designed to test preventive measures

C) evaluates new treatment methods

Ans: A

 

97) What are randomized control trials

A) evaluates new treatment methods

B) are an experiment in which subjects in a population are randomly allocated into groups, usually called study and control groups. 

C) involves the administration of a test regimen to humans to evaluate its efficacy and safety.

Ans: B

 

98) What are quasi-experimental designs

A) When sensitivity tests correctly identify all potential cases as either negative or positive

B) Describes when a definitive diagnosis that has been determined by biopsy, surgery, autopsy or other method and has been accepted as the standard.

C) Where the investigator manipulates the study factor but does not assign individual subjects randomly to the exposed and non-exposed groups. 

Ans: C

 

99) What is the gold standard for research designs

A) Describes when a definitive diagnosis that has been determined by biopsy, surgery, autopsy or other method and has been accepted as the standard. 

B) Where the investigator manipulates the study factor but does not assign individual subjects randomly to the exposed and non-exposed groups.

C) When sensitivity tests correctly identify all potential cases as either negative or positive

Ans: A

 

100) Why is the gold standard considered the best

A) It helps to generalize the study to the population

B) The standard will help to conclude that the results were true

C) When sensitivity tests correctly identify all potential cases as either negative or positive 

Ans: C

 

110) What is external validity

A) This is the generalizing of the study to the population 

B) Was the conclusion true? It is the extent to which you can believe your results

C) It is the third variable that relates to the exposure and the outcome

Ans: A

 

111) What is internal validity

A) Was the conclusion true? It is the extent to which you can believe your results 

B) This is the generalizing of the study to the population

C) It is the third variable that relates to the exposure and the outcome

Ans: A

 

112) Environmental epidemiology is the study of disease and the conditions linked to indoor factors

A) True

B) False 

Ans: B

 

113) As they relate to environmental characteristics, what is the physical

A) plants and animals that can act as reservoirs

B) the environment that houses the agent 

C) overcrowding usually due to economic issues

 

114) Physical Dating Epidemiology is

A) the measurement of media use and video games

B) performed by monitoring levels of excreted drugs to get a measure of drug use

C) how often and under what circumstances are people being abused 

D) investigate public health problems caused by intentional acts

Ans: C

 

115) Describe sensitivity

A) the ability of a test to correctly identify all individuals who have been screened and actually have the disease 

B) This is the ability of a test to identify only those non diseased individuals who actually do not have the disease

C) the proportion of people screened positive by a test and actually have the disease, this is the + value

Ans: A

 

116) The human genome project was performed by the NIH, and discovered all the genes of DNA

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

117) In 2002 what percentage of high schoolers were found to be smokers

A) 28%

B) 22% 

C) 18%

Ans: B

 

118) As it relates to environmental characteristics, what is climatologic

A) an environment where disease spreads the quickest 

B) overcrowding usually due to economic issues

C) plants and animals that can act as reservoirs

Ans: A

 

119) Contributing factor to an illness is defined as

A) the occurence of mental disorders

B) A co-morbidity in the form of a psychiatric disease 

C) the contributing factors of sexual disease

Ans: B

 

120) An indirect mean of transmission may be anything other than

A) Person to Animal

B) Person to Person 

C) Object to Person

Ans: B

 

121) Define active immunity

A) Immunity gained from a person to person transaction

B) The development of immunity from previous exposure to an agent before a vaccine or natural infection 

C) Resistance of the entire community because of the people immunity within the community

Ans: B

 

122) Herd immunity is…

A) Immunity gained from a person to person transaction

B) Acquired immunity from previous exposure to an agent before a vaccine or natural infection

C) Resistance of the entire community because of the people immunity within the community 

Ans: C

 

123) Screen based epidemiology is

A) how often and under what circumstances are people being abused

B) the measurement of media use and video games 

C) investigate public health problems caused by intentional acts

D) performed by monitoring levels of excreted drugs to get a measure of drug use

Ans: B

 

124) The attack rate is calculated by # Ill/(Ill + Well multiplied by 100

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

125) The equation for Sensitivity is this: A/(A+C

 

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

126) Epidemiologists have found that accidents can be avoided and are predictable

A) True 

B) False

Ans: A

 

127) The equation for Specificity is

A) C/(B+D 

B) D/(B+C

C) A/(B+D

Ans: A

 

128) Define passive immunity

A) Acquired immunity from previous exposure to an agent before a vaccine or natural infection

B) Resistance of the entire community because of the people immunity within the community

C) Immunity gained from a person to person transaction 

Ans: C

 

129) The fifth most frequent cause of mortality and leading causes of injury related deaths are

A) Smoking

B) Motor vehicle related, fire arm, or poisoning 

C) Flying

Ans: B

 

130) The traditional black box epidemiology is defined as

A) the measurement of media use and video games

B) how much a plane can go for without crashing

C) an uncovered association between risk and disease without knowing why 

Ans: C